The Madras High Court declined to restrain authorities from disbursing a husband’s retirement benefits holding that maintenance orders cannot be enforced through writ jurisdiction. (Image enhanced using AI)

Background

• The petitioner had obtained maintenance orders in her favour. She alleged that her husband failed to comply with those directions.
• She therefore approached the high court seeking to stop the release of his pensionary and retirement benefits.
• The plea was made against the pension authorities, urging them not to disburse the benefits payable to the third respondent.

• The petitioner claimed that orders granting maintenance had already been passed in her favour and continued to remain in force.
• Contending that her husband had failed to honour those orders, she sought intervention from the high court through a writ petition.
• Her primary request was that the pension authorities be directed not to release the terminal and pensionary benefits due to her husband.

No legal or constitutional right infringed

The court found that the nature of the dispute was essentially matrimonial and arose out of alleged non-compliance with maintenance orders.

It observed that the grievance projected by the petitioner was directed against her husband and not against the official respondents who were responsible for disbursing pensionary benefits.

“Absolutely, there is no legal or constitutional right of the petitioner that is infringed by the respondents 1 (Administrator, Tamil Nadu State Transport Corporation Employees Pension Fund Trust) & 2 (General Manager, Tamil Nadu State Transport Corporation) and the entire grievance of the petitioner is only against the third respondent.” the court said.

The court noted that if a maintenance order had already been passed and remained unsatisfied, the law provides specific remedies for its enforcement.

Such remedies, the court indicated, include initiating execution proceedings before the competent forum rather than invoking the extraordinary writ jurisdiction of the high court.

The judgment emphasised that the high court cannot be transformed into a forum for execution of decrees or orders passed by other courts.

Nor can writ proceedings be used as a substitute for remedies specifically available under the relevant procedural law.

The court further observed that a writ of mandamus is ordinarily issued when a legal or constitutional right has been infringed by a public authority.

In the present case, however, the petitioner had failed to establish any violation of a legal or constitutional right by the pension authorities.

Final decision

The court therefore concluded that the writ petition was not maintainable and could not be entertained under Article 226 of the Constitution.

Holding that the petition was misconceived, the court dismissed the plea seeking to restrain the release of the third respondent’s pensionary and retirement benefits.

The ruling underscores that maintenance orders must be enforced through the mechanisms provided by law and that writ jurisdiction cannot be invoked merely to secure compliance with such orders.

Written by Aparajita Prasad. She is an intern with The Indian Express. 

MHT CET results 2026: Result date in the last 5 years

Peddi is doing well at the box office, and the team’s decision to watch it together in a public theatre jolted the interest among fans.

#RamCharan నిన్న ఆడియన్స్ తో కలిసి సినిమా చూసి ఎంజాయ్ చేశారు.

పక్కనే కూర్చొని దర్శకుడు BuchhiBabu ఏదో ఎక్స్ప్లెయిన్ చేస్తున్నారు. pic.twitter.com/yb15dlO0HE

— Rajesh Manne (@rajeshmanne1) June 8, 2026

#Magadheera was the last film that #RamCharan watched at Prasads IMAX.

17 years later, he returned to the same theatre to watch #Peddi. pic.twitter.com/OVRd1aDAs7

— Telugu Chitraalu (@CineChitraalu) June 7, 2026

After the nearly three-hour film wrapped, a small moment on the way out caught attention of the fans. Videos circulating on social media showed Ram Charan carefully handing a young girl back to her father as the crowd pressed in around them while exiting the screen. The actor, visibly cautious about the child’s safety in the busy exit rush, made sure she was safely back in her father’s arms before moving ahead.

. @AlwaysRamCharan carefully handed over the baby girl to her father, worried that something might happen to her 🥺🥹❤️ #RamCharan #PEDDI pic.twitter.com/A7uBonfk4m

— Telugu Cult 𝐘𝐓 (@Telugu_Cult) June 7, 2026

The outing at Prasads came just days after a security incident at a promotional event drew wide attention online. A grand promotional event was organised in Vijayawada, drawing the presence of Ram Charan, Buchi Babu Sana, and Janhvi Kapoor. During the gathering, an enthusiastic fan managed to bypass security barriers and rushed toward Ram Charan, before he was escorted away by security personnel.

Also Read: Peddi Box Office Collection Live Updates

About Peddi

Peddi is a Telugu-language sports action drama directed by Buchi Babu Sana, produced by Venkata Satish Kilaru under Vriddhi Cinemas, and presented by Mythri Movie Makers and Sukumar Writings. The film stars Ram Charan in the title role, alongside Shiva Rajkumar, Janhvi Kapoor, Jagapathi Babu, Divyenndu, and Boman Irani, with music composed by AR Rahman.

Peddi is set against a sports backdrop, combining cricket and wrestling with a strong emotional core. The film is on track to cross the Rs. 300 crore gross mark, with no major competition expected in the coming days.

However, the installation has sparked criticism among privacy advocates, who argue that many users are unaware that the software has been downloaded. The AI model is stored as a file called weights.bin, which can occupy around 4GB of storage space.

Google says the model is installed only on devices that meet specific hardware requirements and may be automatically removed if the system lacks sufficient storage, memory, processing power, or network resources. The company has also introduced settings that allow users to disable on-device AI functionality.

How to check if Gemini Nano is installed

Mac users can open Finder, navigate to Library > Application Support > Google > Chrome > Default, and look for a folder named OptGuideOnDeviceModel. If the folder contains a file called weights.bin, Gemini Nano is installed.

Windows users can press Windows + R and enter %LOCALAPPDATA%\Google\Chrome\User Data\OptGuideOnDeviceModel. Alternatively, they can browse to the same location through File Explorer and check for the weights.bin file.

How to remove the AI model

To disable Gemini Nano on a Mac, users should open Chrome, go to Settings > System, and switch off On-device AI.

Windows users can follow a few additional steps:

• Open Chrome and go to Settings > System.
• Turn off On-device AI.
• Type chrome://flags into the address bar.
• Search for Optimisation Guide.
• Set Enables Optimisation Guide on Device to Disabled.
• Restart Chrome completely.
• Navigate to the Chrome user data folder and delete the OptGuideOnDeviceModel directory.

The controversy highlights a broader shift in the AI industry. Technology companies are increasingly moving AI processing from cloud servers onto users’ own devices, reducing infrastructure costs while enabling faster and more personalised experiences.

Critics argue that such deployments should be more transparent, particularly when they involve downloading large files and using local storage without explicit user approval. Some privacy experts have also questioned whether the approach complies with transparency requirements under European data protection laws.

While Google maintains that Gemini Nano is intended to improve Chrome’s AI capabilities, the episode has reignited debate over how companies introduce AI features and the level of control users should have over software installed on their devices.

POLAND

Robert Lewandowski of course. But just the stubborn effort to utter those unpronouncable names for two weeks atleast – Włodzimierz Smolarek, Paweł Kryszałowicz, Emmanuel Olisadebe, Marcin Żewłakow, Bartosz Bosacki, Grzegorz Krychowiak, Jan Bednarek, Piotr Zieliński. Just when that last name was getting easy to say, Poland decides to not qualify. They had Aston Villa’s Patty Cash this time. But your loss – you will not be labouring over saying Oskar Pietuszewski or Przemyslaw Wisniewski this time.

NIGERIA

They have the most goals scored by an African nation in FIFA WC history – 23. But fragments of Nigeria – players of Nigeria origin are playing for England, USA, Switzerland, Canada, Germany, France, Austria, Norway. The colour, flair and stomp the Falcons got to 1994, 1998, 2014 when they made quarters will be missed. But more than anything, arguably the best World Cup jerseys will be pined after — the green ones celebrating their independence from colonizers Britain when they had to wear red. The Nike design with falcon wings on sleeves was iconic, but the green-white, black-white Chevrons jersey will be conspicuous by absence in 2026.

CAMEROON

How did Cameroon with 8 FIFA WC appearances miss out? Just the other day, they were beating Brazil in the 2022 pools in Qatar, after making history beating Argentina in 1990 to make quarters. What will be missed is players of quality of Roger Milla, Samuel Eto’o and the rollercoaster for Vincent Aboubakar. Packed off by Cabo Verde and Congo in the 2026 qualification cycle, Cameroon will not be around. Neither will their pragmatic attempt at wearing sleeveless jerseys, that FIFA struck down by forcing black sleeves after African Cup of Nations in 2002.

ICELAND

They were only around at 2018. But saving a penalty against Lionel Messi is just the sort of thing a FIFA WC can do with – a volcano in ice-nation vibe. For that, Hannes Por Halldorson, the goalkeeping legend securing a 1-1 draw will be missed. It’s been 10 years since Iceland beat England at Euros, followed by the ‘Thunder Clap’ (“Huh!” followed by two claps). The Viking buzz packing off England – 2026, you knownot what you missed.

CHILE

Chile have for eternity denied a coastline to Bolivia and Argentina with their impressive bull-headed geography if you stare at the map of South America. But alongwith Peru to their north, their football team has been denied a World Cup qualification for a a dozen years now, as their performances plummet.

Italy are not the only team to miss out on the World Cup a third straight time in 2026. Also flaking off are Chile. The second oldest Federation from South America, a founder of CONMEBOL, their fade out is gradual since third place in 1962. Eduardo Vargas, Jorge Valdivia, and Alexis Sanchez might be the last memories of the Chile’s downswing or Pepper-taper.

2) The current security of Bab al Mandab should not lead the enemy into a miscalculation. The Resistance Axis has the capability to lock down both #waterways

— Aliakbar Velayati (@Drvelayati_ir) June 7, 2026

Yemen’s Iran-backed Houthi rebels, on Monday (Jun 8), claimed a new attack on Israel and declared that Israel-affiliated vessels are once again active targets in the Red Sea, placing the Red Sea, the Gulf of Aden, and the narrow Bab al-Mandab Strait that connects them in immediate danger.

What is Bab al-Mandab Strait?

The Bab al-Mandab Strait is a strategic maritime corridor at the southern entrance of the Red Sea that serves as a key gateway to the Suez Canal and connects Europe and Asia through one of the globe’s busiest shipping routes.

Located between Yemen and the Horn of Africa nations of Djibouti and Eritrea, the Strait narrows to about 29 kilometres at its tightest point.

In late 2023, Houthi rebels targeted commercial vessels transiting the Red Sea in retaliation for Israel’s war in Gaza. The attacks forced many shipping companies to reroute vessels, increasing fuel, insurance and crew-related costs.

The Houthis had then launched over 100 attacks, killing at least nine mariners and sinking four ships, frequently targeting vessels with tangential or no actual ties to Israel.

The attacks disrupted shipping in the Red Sea, through which roughly $1 trillion in goods passed annually before the war.

This also heavily impacted transits through the Suez Canal, a vital source of hard currency for Egypt, which generated $10 billion in revenue for the country in 2023.

The strait has, however, remained navigable throughout the current war.

Why is Bab al-Mandab Strait important?

Saudi Arabia is actively relying on its East-West Pipeline to export oil through the Red Sea as an alternative to the volatile Strait of Hormuz.

In the year 2024, about 4.1 million barrels of petroleum products passed through Bab al-Mandab daily, which amounts to five per cent of the global oil trade, highlighting the route’s strategic significance for international energy markets.

A closure of the Bab al-Mandab Strait would pose a major challenge to global trade and energy markets by restricting access to one of the world’s most significant maritime corridors.

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Justice L Victoria Gowri quashed the POCSO case against a teenage father.

“The majesty of criminal law lies not merely in punishment, but in proportion, procedure and justice. Where the procedure mandated for a child in conflict with law is bypassed, the prosecution loses its legal foundation,” the bench added.

Child marriage, pregnancy and complaint

• On receipt of information through Child Line No 1098, the respondent conducted an enquiry and came to know about the petitioner and the survivor.
• The petitioner and the survivor were in love and allegedly got married on May 14, 2024, thereafter living as husband and wife.
• As the survivor was eight months pregnant and below 18, a complaint was lodged.
• Based on the complaint, the State registered a case for offences punishable under relevant sections of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, and the POCSO Act, 2012.
• Upon completion of the investigation, the State filed a final report against the petitioner, which was taken on file by the special court for exclusive trial in Dindigul of cases under the POCSO Act.

‘Offender is also minor’

The significant question before the Madras High Court was whether the case under the POCSO Act against the petitioner, who was admittedly a child on the date of the alleged occurrence, is legally sustainable? 

The court noted that the petitioner’s date of birth was April 26, 2007, and the alleged occurrence was on May 14, 2024; thus, the petitioner had not yet completed 18 years of age at the time. 

The court observed that Sections 5(1), 5(j)(ii) and 6 of the POCSO Act, 2012, relate to aggravated penetrative sexual assault and its punishment, however, it said that the alleged offender himself was a child at the relevant point of time; the law insists that he must be dealt with through the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB) and not by directly subjecting him to trial as an adult before the special court.

Emphasising the statutory command, the court stated that a child in conflict with law cannot be tried as an adult accused in the ordinary criminal process, except in the manner specifically provided under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.

Criminal Justice System: Court

• The criminal justice system must be stern where exploitation, coercion, trafficking or predatory conduct is alleged. 
• Equally, it must be sensitive where the record discloses an adolescent relationship between two children, one of whom is sought to be prosecuted in a manner contrary to the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015. 
• It is further made clear that this order shall not preclude the competent authorities from taking any lawful welfare, protective or rehabilitative measures, if so required, for the victim and the child born to her, strictly in accordance with law 

‘Survivor rehabilitation and protective plan’

• Since the petitioner, survivor, and the child born stand at a delicate intersection of child protection, adolescent autonomy, motherhood, parenthood and social vulnerability, the court appropriately issued a child-rights-oriented rehabilitation plan.
• The district child protection officer, Dindigul, shall be the nodal officer for implementation of this plan.
• The Child Welfare Committee, Dindigul, shall conduct a confidential welfare assessment of the victim and the child within two weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.
• The CWC, Dindigul, shall ascertain the voluntary wishes of the survivor, her safety, health condition, educational status, emotional well-being and the welfare of the infant child.
• The CWC, Dindigul, shall not compel institutionalisation unless there is a clear finding of neglect, coercion, danger, abandonment or inability to ensure safety in the present living arrangement.
• The district child protection unit shall prepare an individual care plan for the survivor and the child, and a separate rehabilitative supervision plan for the petitioner, who was a child in conflict with law on the date of occurrence.
• The survivor shall be provided access to medical care through the nearest government hospital / Primary Health Centre, including postnatal care, reproductive health counselling, and counselling.
• The victim shall also be offered educational continuation or vocational support, without compelling her to choose between motherhood and her right to development.
• The authorities shall act with sensitivity, confidentiality and child-centric concern, bearing in mind that the purpose of law is not merely to punish past illegality, but also to prevent future vulnerability. 

Jaya Bachchan also spoke about maintaining boundaries throughout her career. “Nobody ever dared to cross the line with me,” she told the publication. Recalling a rare unpleasant experience, she added, “I had only one unpleasant experience of being objectified by a director. I never worked with him again.” Jaya was reportedly referring to her experience while shooting for Shor, directed by Manoj Kumar, in which she played a streetwalker.

ALSO READ | Peddi ignores consent, normalises assault, yet pretends to be a story about dignity

The discussion has also reignited conversations around whether actresses today should take a stronger stand against scenes they find uncomfortable or objectifying.

Responding to the debate, actress Taapsee Pannu told the publication, “As long as there is a camera, there will be awkward angles. One just needs to be self-aware.”

Since its release on June 4, Peddi has found itself at the centre of controversy. Critics and viewers have objected to what they describe as the unnecessary sexualisation of Janhvi Kapoor’s character, along with certain dialogues and scenes involving Ram Charan’s character. A particular sequence, which some viewers felt portrayed a forced kiss as an expression of love, also drew criticism on social media.

The backlash eventually reached director Buchi Babu Sana, who took to X to announce that changes would be made to the contentious sequences. He also apologised to viewers whose sentiments were hurt, while maintaining that there was no intention to objectify Janhvi.

Neither Janhvi Kapoor nor Ram Charan has publicly addressed the controversy so far.

Deputy Inspector General (CID) Ajay Kumar Thakur has been promoted to Inspector General of Police (CID). Meanwhile, Indra Chakravorty has been posted as DIG (CID). The officer was previously the Special Superintendent of Police (CID).

IGP (Bankura Range) Rajesh Kumar Yadav has been posted as IGP (Special Task Force). IPS officer Rupesh Kumar has been promoted to DIG (STF) from the post of Joint Commissioner (Kolkata Traffic Police). DIG (Railways) S Selvamurugan has been posted as DIG (West Bengal Traffic Police).

Murlidhar Sharma has been appointed as IGP West Bengal (Intelligence Branch). He was previously awaiting posting.

Arijit Sinha, who was previously DIG (Midnapore Range), has been posted as DIG (Traffic). Alok Rajoria has been promoted as IGP (Legal). Joint CP (Crime) Soma Das Mitra has been promoted to IGP (Policy). Subhankar Bhattacharya, who was Joint CP (Administrative and Personnel), has been shifted to DIG (Traffic). Meanwhile, Kunal Aggarwal, who was DIG (West Bengal National Volunteer Force), will take charge as Additional CP (Crime), Kolkata Police.

Sweety Kumari is a seasoned journalist reporting from West Bengal for The Indian Express. With over a decade of experience in the media industry and eight years specifically with The Indian Express, she demonstrates considerable Expertise and Authority across a diverse range of critical beats. Experience & Authority Current Role: Journalist, The Indian Express, reporting from West Bengal. Extensive Tenure: Over 10 years of experience in the media industry, with a long association (8 years) with The Indian Express, contributing to a high level of Trustworthiness. Diverse Coverage: Covers crucial beats including Crime, Defence, Health, and Politics, alongside writing on trending topics. Investigative Focus: Possesses a keen eye for investigative and human-interest stories, demonstrating depth and skill in impactful journalism. Beat Versatility: Has honed her craft across diverse beats, including aviation and reporting on various incidents, ensuring well-rounded and comprehensive reportage. Career Start: Began her journalistic journey as an Entertainment and lifestyle journalist with a news portal in Kolkata, providing a foundational understanding of media landscape and audience engagement. Education Advanced Education: Holds a PG in Mass Communication from Jadavpur University, equipping her with advanced media theory and skills. Undergraduate Education: Holds an Honours degree in Journalism from Jaipuria College. Multilingual Skill: Her fluency in English, Hindi, Bengali, and Maithili enhances her reach and capability to connect with diverse sources and communities in the region, adding a layer of accessibility and authenticity to her reporting. Regional Roots: Originally from Bihar, she was brought up and educated in Kolkata (Kendriya Vidyalaya Salt Lake), giving her a deep, personal understanding of the cultural and political nuances of her reporting region. Sweety Kumari's combination of significant experience, specialization in key beats like Crime and Politics, and strong academic background makes her a trusted and authoritative contributor to The Indian Express. ... Read More

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Debutant Manav Suthar was the pick of the bowlers, registering a six-wicket haul in the first innings. Washington Sundar and Kuldeep Yadav accounted for seven wickets between them in the second innings, helping India register a colossal win.

Sundar picked four wickets in the second innings and said he felt he was getting rhythm right from the start. “I felt really good, especially to play this format after a while. Yeah, I just wanted to get a lot of volume coming into the game and obviously I felt like I was getting the rhythm right from the scratch, from ball one. And that was definitely a very good feeling,” he said after the win.

Sundar also shone with the bat, scoring a half-century earlier in the innings. Speaking on his batting, he said, “definitely, it felt really good, both with the bat and the ball. I wanted to show good discipline with the bat and glad the way I sort of approached the entire innings and God was kind.”

Biggest Test wins for India

Inns & 300 runs vs AFG, Mullanpur, 2026*

Inns & 272 runs vs WI, Rajkot, 2018

Inns & 262 runs vs AFG, Bengaluru, 2018

Inns & 239 runs vs BAN, Mirpur, 2007

Inns & 239 runs vs SL, Nagpur, 2017

More to follow…

“Of course, when an accused pleads guilty and if the sentence is disproportionate, there can definitely be a judicial review of the same. But we have to bear in mind that we are concerned with the maintenance of military discipline. The considerations are different,” the court said on June 1.

Justices G R Swaminathan and R Poornima said that we did not find any sufficient ground to interfere in favour of the petitioner.

The order added that there might have been some provocation for the same, but that did not entitle the petitioner to inflict a grievous injury (fracture on RT mandible) on a fellow recruit.

‘He could have been sentenced to a term of imprisonment’

• After hearing the counsel for the petitioner as well as the Deputy Solicitor General of India for the respondents, we are of the view that interference is not warranted.
• It is for more than one reason. The writ petitioner had not even been formally admitted to the armed forces.
• When charges were framed against the petitioner, the petitioner did not plead any mitigating circumstances.
• On the other hand, he pleaded guilty. Once the petitioner pleaded guilty, the authority was left with the discretion to award an appropriate sentence.
• The Deputy Solicitor General of India would contend that, considering the nature of the act committed by the petitioner, he could have been sentenced to a term of imprisonment. The authorities did not do so.
• They took a lenient view and chose to restrict the punishment of dismissing the petitioner from service.
• Of course, when an accused pleads guilty and if the sentence is disproportionate, there can definitely be a judicial review of the same.
• The petitioner’s appeal was dismissed, and the tribunal also did not deem it fit to interfere with the punishment imposed on the petitioner.
• In the exercise of judicial review, we did not find any sufficient ground to interfere in favour of the petitioner.

Case of altercation during military training

The petitioner was enrolled in the Indian Army on December 19, 2016, and was undergoing basic military training. On April 12, 2017, an altercation occurred between the petitioner and a fellow recruit. The victim sustained grievous injuries (Fracture RT mandible), and he complained to the superior authorities.

In this regard, a court of inquiry was held against the petitioner on May 5, 2017, and two charges were framed against the petitioner. First, that without sufficient cause, failing to appear at the place appointed for duty, and, second, that an act prejudicial to good order and military discipline.

When the petitioner was questioned, he pleaded guilty to both charges. He only sought pardon and undertook not to repeat such acts. However, the summary court martial was of the view that the petitioner’s conduct was not in consonance with military discipline and hence, awarded the sentence of dismissal from service of order dated January 10, 2018.

Following the dismissal, the petitioner filed an appeal before the appellate authority. The appellate authority also dismissed the appeal vide order dated August 5, 2019.

Challenging the same, the petitioner filed a plea before the Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT), Regional Bench, Chennai. In August 2023, the AFT dismissed the appeal. Questioning the same, the petitioner filed this petition before the high court.

What do the trends show?

An analysis of the last five years shows that UPSC has consistently declared the Civil Services Prelims result within about two to three weeks of the examination. The shortest gap was 15 days in 2023 and 2024, while the longest was 19 days in 2021.

The most recent four examination cycles saw results announced within 15 to 17 days of the exam. If a similar timeline is followed this year, candidates can expect the UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 result around the second week of June.

This year, the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2026 was held on May 24, while the recruitment process aims to fill 933 vacancies across various services. According to available exam data, approximately 5.49 lakh candidates appeared for the preliminary examination this year.

Once declared, the result will be released in PDF format on the official UPSC website, containing the roll numbers of candidates shortlisted for the Civil Services Main Examination.

As per educators and students, the GS paper was longer and tougher than the CSE Prelims 2025. This year’s paper one featured Economy (19 questions), Environment (11), Geography (13), History & Art & Culture (20), Polity & Governance (8), Science & Technology (18), and Miscellaneous (11). On the other hand, for CSAT, educators claim that it was different, but not difficult. The paper introduced a few unconventional and different pattern questions, which may have surprised many aspirants; however, overall, the paper remained quite doable for well-prepared candidates.

This year, UPSC has added three new centres at Kanpur, Meerut and Bhubaneshwar, thus relieving pressure from existing centres that handled candidates in larger numbers. The total number of examination centres for CES Prelims has now increased from 80 to 83. According to the Commission, nearly 23,000 candidates have opted to take the exam from the newly added centres.

Wanted To Buy Her Bengal House, Asked To Vacate